QRZ! Ham Radio 1/QRZ Ham Radio Callsign Database - December 1993.iso/arrl/pool_adv.2

Text File | 1993-11-21 | 53KB | 1,504 lines

Continued from file ADV-1.ASC...

4AE-5.29 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
   A. 22.3 kHz
   B. 76.2 kHz
   C. 31.4 kHz
   D. 10.8 kHz

4AE-5.30 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of
187?
   A. 22.3 kHz
   B. 10.8 kHz
   C. 13.1 kHz
   D. 76.2 kHz

4AE-5.31 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7
microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 75.1
   B. 7.51
   C. 71.5
   D. 0.013

4AE-5.32 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7
microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 4.31
   B. 43.1
   C. 13.3
   D. 0.023

4AE-5.33 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys
and the resistance is 180 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 0.00735
   B. 7.35
   C. 0.136
   D. 13.3

4AE-5.34 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5
microhenrys and the resistance is 10,000 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 7.35
   B. 0.0319
   C. 71.5
   D. 31.9

4AE-5.35 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2
microhenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 36.8
   B. 0.273
   C. 0.368
   D. 2.73

4AE-5.36 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1
microhenrys and the resistance is 100 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 0.221
   B. 4.52
   C. 0.00452
   D. 22.1

4AE-5.37 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6
microhenrys and the resistance is 22,000 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 22.1
   B. 39
   C. 25.6
   D. 0.0256

4AE-5.38 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys
and the resistance is 2,200 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 0.031
   B. 32.2
   C. 31.1
   D. 25.6

4AE-5.39 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys
and the resistance is 220 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 23
   B. 0.00435
   C. 4.35
   D. 0.23

4AE-5.40 What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys
and the resistance is 1,800 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1.84
   B. 0.543
   C. 54.3
   D. 23

4AE-6.1 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current

4AE-6.2 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

4AE-6.3 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500
ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250 ohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

4AE-6.4 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 ohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

4AE-6.5 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

4AE-6.6 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   B. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   C. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

4AE-6.7 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

4AE-6.8 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250
ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

4AE-6.9 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

4AE-6.10 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
   B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
   D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current

4AE-7.1 Why would the rate at which electrical energy is used in
a circuit be less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC
voltage and current?
   A. Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero
between the current and voltage
   B. Because there are only resistances in the circuit
   C. Because there are no reactances in the circuit
   D. Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero
between the current and voltage

4AE-7.2 In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of
phase, how can the true power be determined?
   A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
   B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
   C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
   D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current

4AE-7.3 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having
a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
   A. 1.414
   B. 0.866
   C. 0.5
   D. 1.73

4AE-7.4 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having
a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
   A. 0.866
   B. 1.0
   C. 0.5
   D. 0.707

4AE-7.5 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having
a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
   A. 1.73
   B. 0.5
   C. 0.866
   D. 0.577

4AE-7.6 How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a
power factor of 0.2 when the input is 100-V AC and 4-amperes is
being drawn?
   A. 400 watts
   B. 80 watts
   C. 2000 watts
   D. 50 watts

4AE-7.7 How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a
power factor of 0.6 when the input is 200-V AC and 5-amperes is
being drawn?
   A. 200 watts
   B. 1000 watts
   C. 1600 watts
   D. 600 watts

4AE-8.1 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.2 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB
feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.3 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.4 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB
feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.5 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.6 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB
feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.7 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with l20 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB
feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.8 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.9 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-8.10 What is the effective radiated power of a station in
repeater operation with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB
antenna gain?
   A. 252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   B. 63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   C. 632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole
   D. 159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole

4AE-9.1 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts,
R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
   B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
   C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
   D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts

4AE-9.2 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts,
R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
   B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
   C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts
   D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

4AE-9.3 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts,
R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
   B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
   C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
   D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

4AE-9.4 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts,
R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
   B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
   C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
   D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts

4AE-9.5 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts,
R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
   B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
   C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
   D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts

4AE-9.6 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts,
R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
   B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
   C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
   D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts

4AE-9.7 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts,
R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
   B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
   C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
   D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts

4AE-9.8 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts,
R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
   B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
   C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
   D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts

4AE-9.9 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts,
R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
   B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
   C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
   D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

4AE-9.10 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts,
R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms [see graphics addendum]?
   A. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
   B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
   C. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
   D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts

4AF-1.1 What is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor
diode/rectifier [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-1.2 Structurally, what are the two main categories of
semiconductor diodes?
   A. Junction and point contact
   B. Electrolytic and junction
   C. Electrolytic and point contact
   D. Vacuum and point contact

4AF-1.3 What is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-1.4 What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes?
   A. Hot carrier and tunnel
   B. Varactor and rectifying
   C. Voltage regulator and voltage reference
   D. Forward and reversed biased

4AF-1.5 What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?
   A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
   B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
   C. A negative resistance region
   D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied
voltage

4AF-1.6 What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener
diodes?
   A. 2.4 volts to 200 volts
   B. 1.2 volts to 7 volts
   C. 3 volts to 2000 volts
   D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts

4AF-1.7 What is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-1.8 What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
   A. A high forward resistance
   B. A very high PIV
   C. A negative resistance region
   D. A high forward current rating

4AF-1.9 What special type of diode is capable of both
amplification and oscillation?
   A. Point contact diodes
   B. Zener diodes
   C. Tunnel diodes
   D. Junction diodes

4AF-1.10 What is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-1.11 What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal
capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?
   A. A varactor diode
   B. A tunnel diode
   C. A silicon-controlled rectifier
   D. A Zener diode

4AF-1.12 What is the principal characteristic of a varactor
diode?
   A. It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying
current
   B. Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage
   C. It has a negative resistance region
   D. It has a very high PIV

4AF-1.13 What is a common use of a varactor diode?
   A. As a constant current source
   B. As a constant voltage source
   C. As a voltage controlled inductance
   D. As a voltage controlled capacitance

4AF-1.14 What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
   A. As balanced mixers in SSB generation
   B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control
circuit
   C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
   D. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors

4AF-1.15 What limits the maximum forward current in a junction
diode?
   A. The peak inverse voltage
   B. The junction temperature
   C. The forward voltage
   D. The back EMF

4AF-1.16 How are junction diodes rated?
   A. Maximum forward current and capacitance
   B. Maximum reverse current and PIV
   C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance
   D. Maximum forward current and PIV

4AF-1.17 What is a common use for point contact diodes?
   A. As a constant current source
   B. As a constant voltage source
   C. As an RF detector
   D. As a high voltage rectifier

4AF-1.18 What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a
very small semi-conductor die?
   A. Zener diode
   B. Varactor diode
   C. Junction diode
   D. Point contact diode

4AF-1.19 What is one common use for PIN diodes?
   A. As a constant current source
   B. As a constant voltage source
   C. As an RF switch
   D. As a high voltage rectifier

4AF-1.20 What special type of diode is often used in RF switches,
attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices?
   A. Tunnel diodes
   B. Varactor diodes
   C. PIN diodes
   D. Junction diodes

4AF-2.1 What is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-2.2 What is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-2.3 What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?
   A. Cathode, plate and grid
   B. Base, collector and emitter
   C. Gate, source and sink
   D. Input, output and ground

4AF-2.4 What is the meaning of the term ++++alpha++++ with regard to
bipolar transistors?
   A. The change of collector current with respect to base
current
   B. The change of base current with respect to collector
current
   C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter
current
   D. The change of collector current with respect to gate
current

4AF-2.5 What is the term used to express the ratio of change in
DC collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar
transistor?
   A. Gamma
   B. Epsilon
   C. Alpha
   D. Beta

4AF-2.6 What is the meaning of the term ++++beta++++ with regard to
bipolar transistors?
   A. The change of collector current with respect to base
current
   B. The change of base current with respect to emitter current
   C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter
current
   D. The change in base current with respect to gate current

4AF-2.7 What is the term used to express the ratio of change in
the DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar
transistor?
   A. Alpha
   B. Beta
   C. Gamma
   D. Delta

4AF-2.8 What is the meaning of the term ++++alpha cutoff frequency++++
with regard to bipolar transistors?
   A. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in
common emitter configuration
   B. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in
common base configuration
   C. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in
common base configuration
   D. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in
common emitter configuration

4AF-2.9 What is the term used to express that frequency at which
the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain
obtainable at 1 kHz  in a transistor?
   A. Corner frequency
   B. Alpha cutoff frequency
   C. Beta cutoff frequency
   D. Alpha rejection frequency

4AF-2.10 What is the meaning of the term ++++beta cutoff frequency++++
with regard to a bipolar transistor?
   A. That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
   B. That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain
has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
   C. That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain
has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
   D. That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor

4AF-2.11 What is the meaning of the term ++++transition region++++ with
regard to a transistor?
   A. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
   B. The area of maximum P-type charge
   C. The area of maximum N-type charge
   D. The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-
type material

4AF-2.12 What does it mean for a transistor to be ++++fully
saturated++++?
   A. The collector current is at its maximum value
   B. The collector current is at its minimum value
   C. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value
   D. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value

4AF-2.13 What does it mean for a transistor to be ++++cut off++++?
   A. There is no base current
   B. The transistor is at its operating point
   C. No current flows from emitter to collector
   D. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector

4AF-2.14 What is the schematic symbol for a unijunction
transistor [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-2.15 What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?
   A. Base 1, base 2 and emitter
   B. Gate, cathode and anode
   C. Gate, base 1 and base 2
   D. Gate, source and sink

4AF-2.16 For best efficiency and stability, where on the load-
line should a solid-state power amplifier be operated?
   A. Just below the saturation point
   B. Just above the saturation point
   C. At the saturation point
   D. At 1.414 times the saturation point

4AF-2.17 What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices
exhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics?
   A. Silicon and gold
   B. Silicon and germanium
   C. Galena and germanium
   D. Galena and bismuth

4AF-3.1 What is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled
rectifier [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-3.2 What are the three terminals of an SCR?
   A. Anode, cathode and gate
   B. Gate, source and sink
   C. Base, collector and emitter
   D. Gate, base 1 and base 2

4AF-3.3 What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR?
   A. Conducting and nonconducting
   B. Oscillating and quiescent
   C. Forward conducting and reverse conducting
   D. NPN conduction and PNP conduction

4AF-3.4 When an SCR is in the ++++triggered++++ or ++++on++++ condition, its
electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state
device (as measured between its cathode and anode)?
   A. The junction diode
   B. The tunnel diode
   C. The hot-carrier diode
   D. The varactor diode

4AF-3.5 Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit
electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon
rectifier?
   A. During a switching transition
   B. When it is used as a detector
   C. When it is gated "off"
   D. When it is gated "on"

4AF-3.6 What is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-3.7 What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two
complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?
   A. TRIAC
   B. Bilateral SCR
   C. Unijunction transistor
   D. Field effect transistor

4AF-3.8 What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
   A. Emitter, base 1 and base 2
   B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
   C. Base, emitter and collector
   D. Gate, source and sink

4AF-4.1 What is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-4.2 What is the normal operating voltage and current for a
light-emitting diode?
   A. 60 volts and 20 mA
   B. 5 volts and 50 mA
   C. 1.7 volts and 20 mA
   D. 0.7 volts and 60 mA

4AF-4.3 What type of bias is required for an LED to produce
luminescence?
   A. Reverse bias
   B. Forward bias
   C. Zero bias
   D. Inductive bias

4AF-4.4 What are the advantages of using an LED?
   A. Low power consumption and long life
   B. High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption
   C. High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement
   D. A current flows when the device is exposed to a light
source

4AF-4.5 What colors are available in LEDs?
   A. Yellow, blue, red and brown
   B. Red, violet, yellow and peach
   C. Violet, blue, orange and red
   D. Red, green, orange and yellow

4AF-4.6 What is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

4AF-4.7 What type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio
work?
   A. NE-1
   B. NE-2
   C. NE-3
   D. NE-4

4AF-4.8 What is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp?
   A. Approximately 67 volts
   B. Approximately 5 volts
   C. Approximately 5.6 volts
   D. Approximately 110 volts

4AF-4.9 What is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp?
   A. Approximately 110-V AC RMS
   B. Approximately 5-V AC RMS
   C. Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS
   D. Approximately 48-V AC RMS

4AF-4.10 How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of
RF?
   A. A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF
   B. A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF
   C. A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low
frequency RF
   D. A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF

4AF-5.1 What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice
band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone emission?
   A. 6 kHz at -6 dB
   B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB
   C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
   D. 15 kHz at -6 dB

4AF-5.2 What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice
band-pass filter for a double-sideband phone emission?
   A. 1 kHz at -6 dB
   B. 500 Hz at -6 dB
   C. 6 kHz at -6 dB
   D. 15 kHz at -6 dB

4AF-5.3 What is a crystal lattice filter?
   A. A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz
crystals
   B. An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz
intervals
   C. A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using
quartz crystals
   D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using
quartz crystals

4AF-5.4 What technique can be used to construct low cost, high
performance crystal lattice filters?
   A. Splitting and tumbling
   B. Tumbling and grinding
   C. Etching and splitting
   D. Etching and grinding

4AF-5.5 What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a
crystal lattice filter?
   A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
   B. The center frequency chosen for the filter
   C. The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter
   D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the
filter

4AG-1.1 What is a ++++linear electronic voltage regulator++++?
   A. A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output
   B. A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the
"off" state to the "on" state
   C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or
off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load
conditions
   D. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is
varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current

4AG-1.2 What is a ++++switching electronic voltage regulator++++?
   A. A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is
varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
   B. A regulator that provides more than one output voltage
   C. A regulator in which the control device is switched on or
off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load
conditions
   D. A regulator that gives a ramp voltage at its output

4AG-1.3 What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage
in a linear voltage regulator?
   A. A Zener diode
   B. A tunnel diode
   C. An SCR
   D. A varactor diode

4AG-1.4 What type of linear regulator is used in applications
requiring efficient utilization of the primary power source?
   A. A constant current source
   B. A series regulator
   C. A shunt regulator
   D. A shunt current source

4AG-1.5 What type of linear voltage regulator is used in
applications where the load on the unregulated voltage source
must be kept constant?
   A. A constant current source
   B. A series regulator
   C. A shunt current source
   D. A shunt regulator

4AG-1.6 To obtain the best temperature stability, what should be
the operating voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage
regulator?
   A. Approximately 2.0 volts
   B. Approximately 3.0 volts
   C. Approximately 6.0 volts
   D. Approximately 10.0 volts

4AG-1.7 What is the meaning of the term ++++remote sensing++++ with
regard to a linear voltage regulator?
   A. The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made
directly to the load
   B. Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops
   C. The load connection is made outside the feedback loop
   D. The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the
reference voltage

4AG-1.8 What is a ++++three-terminal regulator++++?
   A. A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable
current
   B. A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant
current
   C. A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing
transistors
   D. A regulator containing a voltage reference, error
amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element

4AG-1.9 What are the important characteristics of a three-
terminal regulator?
   A. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current
and voltage
   B. Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current
and voltage
   C. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current
and maximum output voltage
   D. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage
and maximum output current

4AG-2.1 What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A
amplifier?
   A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle
   B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle
   C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees
of the signal cycle
   D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle

4AG-2.2 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence
of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never
goes into the cutoff region?
   A. Class A
   B. Class B
   C. Class C
   D. Class D

4AG-2.3 What is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B
amplifier?
   A. Output for the entire input signal cycle
   B. Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360
degrees of the input signal cycle
   C. Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
   D. Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle

4AG-2.4 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of
current in the output essentially in 180 degree pulses?
   A. Class A
   B. Class B
   C. Class C
   D. Class D

4AG-2.5 What is a ++++Class AB amplifier++++?
   A. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than
360 degrees of the signal input cycle
   B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input
signal cycle
   C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
   D. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input
signal cycle

4AG-2.6 What is the distinguishing feature of a ++++Class C
amplifier++++?
   A. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input
signal cycle
   B. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input
signal cycle
   C. Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
   D. Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than
360 degrees of the input signal cycle

4AG-2.7 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias
being set well beyond cutoff?
   A. Class A
   B. Class B
   C. Class C
   D. Class AB

4AG-2.8 Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?
   A. Class A
   B. Class B
   C. Class C
   D. Class AB

4AG-2.9 Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and
least distortion?
   A. Class A
   B. Class B
   C. Class C
   D. Class AB

4AG-2.10 Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more
than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine
wave signal?
   A. Class A
   B. Class B
   C. Class C
   D. Class AB

4AG-3.1 What is an ++++L-network++++?
   A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors
   B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor
   C. A network used to generate a leading phase angle
   D. A network used to generate a lagging phase angle

4AG-3.2 What is a ++++pi-network++++?
   A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four
capacitors
   B. A Power Incidence network
   C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
   D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or
two inductors and one capacitor

4AG-3.3 What is a ++++pi-L-network++++?
   A. A Phase Inverter Load network
   B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors
   C. A network with only three discrete parts
   D. A matching network in which all components are isolated
from ground

4AG-3.4 Does the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest
harmonic suppression?
   A. L-network
   B. Pi-network
   C. Inverse L-network
   D. Pi-L-network

4AG-3.5 What are the three most commonly used networks to
accomplish a match between an amplifying device and a
transmission line?
   A. M-network, pi-network and T-network
   B. T-network, M-network and Q-network
   C. L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network
   D. L-network, M-network and C-network

4AG-3.6 How are networks able to transform one impedance to
another?
   A. Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in
the load
   B. The matching network introduces negative resistance to
cancel the resistive part of an impedance
   C. The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel
the reactive part of an impedance
   D. The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an
impedance and change the value of the resistive part of an
impedance

4AG-3.7 Which type of network offers the greater transformation
ratio?
   A. L-network
   B. Pi-network
   C. Constant-K
   D. Constant-M

4AG-3.8 Why is the L-network of limited utility in impedance
matching?
   A. It matches a small impedance range
   B. It has limited power handling capabilities
   C. It is thermally unstable
   D. It is prone to self resonance

4AG-3.9 What is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a
pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of
a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a multiband antenna?
   A. Greater transformation range
   B. Higher efficiency
   C. Lower losses
   D. Greater harmonic suppression

4AG-3.10 Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic
suppression?
   A. L-network
   B. Pi-network
   C. Pi-L-network
   D. Inverse-Pi network

4AG-4.1 What are the three general groupings of filters?
   A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass
   B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive
   C. Audio, radio and capacitive
   D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce

4AG-4.2 What is a ++++constant-K filter++++?
   A. A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant
   B. A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide
range of frequencies
   C. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element
impedances is a constant for all frequencies
   D. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the
design bandwidth

4AG-4.3 What is an advantage of a constant-k filter?
   A. It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far
removed from the passband
   B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies
   C. It uses elliptic functions
   D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can
be varied

4AG-4.4 What is an ++++m-derived filter++++?
   A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the
design bandwidth
   B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element
impedances is a constant for all frequencies
   C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M"
   D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired
frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter.

4AG-4.5 What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth
filter?
   A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element
impedances is a constant for all frequencies
   B. It only requires capacitors
   C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband
   D. It requires only inductors

4AG-4.6 What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev
filter?
   A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband
   B. It allows ripple in the passband
   C. It only requires inductors
   D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element
impedances is a constant for all frequencies

4AG-4.7 When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived
filter over a constant-k filter?
   A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency
   B. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that
is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter
   C. When the number of components must be minimized
   D. When high power levels must be filtered

4AG-5.1 What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
   A. It must have a gain of less than 1
   B. It must be neutralized
   C. It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome
losses
   D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the
input

4AG-5.2 What are three major oscillator circuits often used in
amateur radio equipment?
   A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
   B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
   C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
   D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

4AG-5.3 How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Hartley oscillator?
   A. Through a neutralizing capacitor
   B. Through a capacitive divider
   C. Through link coupling
   D. Through a tapped coil

4AG-5.4 How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Colpitts oscillator?
   A. Through a tapped coil
   B. Through link coupling
   C. Through a capacitive divider
   D. Through a neutralizing capacitor

4AG-5.5 How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a
Pierce oscillator?
   A. Through a tapped coil
   B. Through link coupling
   C. Through a capacitive divider
   D. Through capacitive coupling

4AG-5.6 Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in
amateur radio equipment utilizes a quartz crystal?
   A. Negative feedback
   B. Hartley
   C. Colpitts
   D. Pierce

4AG-5.7 What is the ++++piezoelectric effect++++?
   A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a
voltage
   B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a
magnetic field
   C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of
light
   D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed
to light

4AG-5.8 What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?
   A. It is easy to neutralize
   B. It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
   C. It can be tuned over a wide range
   D. It has a high output power

4AG-5.9 Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a
VFO?
   A. Pierce
   B. Colpitts
   C. Hartley
   D. Negative feedback

4AG-5.10 Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in
a VFO?
   A. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance
   B. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
   C. It is stable
   D. It has high output power

4AG-6.1 What is meant by the term ++++modulation++++?
   A. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise
ratio is reached
   B. Carrier rejection through phase nulling
   C. A linear amplification mode
   D. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a
carrier

4AG-6.2 How is an F3E FM-phone emission produced?
   A. With a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
   B. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
   C. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
   D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator

4AG-6.3 What is a ++++reactance modulator++++?
   A. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance
to produce FM signals
   B. A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance
to produce AM signals
   C. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance
to produce FM signals
   D. A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance
to produce AM signals

4AG-6.4 What is a ++++balanced modulator++++?
   A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation
   B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed
carrier signal
   C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed
carrier signal
   D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal

4AG-6.5 How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?
   A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
   B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
   C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
   D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter

4AG-6.6 How can a double-sideband phone signal be generated?
   A. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter
   B. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
   C. By detuning a Hartley oscillator
   D. By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier

4AG-7.1 How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined?
   A. Efficiency = (RF power out / DC power in) X 100%
   B. Efficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) X 100%
   C. Efficiency = (RF power in / DC power in) X 100%
   D. Efficiency = (DC power in / RF power in) X 100%

4AG-7.2 For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class
C amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 1500-
volts at the plate and 500-milliamperes plate current?
   A. 2000 ohms
   B. 1500 ohms
   C. 4800 ohms
   D. 480 ohms

4AG-7.3 For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class
B amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 800-
volts at the plate and 75-milliamperes plate current?
   A. 679.4 ohms
   B. 60 ohms
   C. 6794 ohms
   D. 10,667 ohms

4AG-7.4 For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum-tube Class
A amplifier, what should the plate-load resistance be with 250-
volts at the plate and 25-milliamperes plate current?
   A. 7692 ohms
   B. 3250 ohms
   C. 325 ohms
   D. 769.2 ohms

4AG-7.5 For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor
amplifier, what should the load resistance be with 12-volts at
the collector and 5 watts power output?
   A. 100.3 ohms
   B. 14.4 ohms
   C. 10.3 ohms
   D. 144 ohms

4AG-7.6 What is the ++++flywheel effect++++?
   A. The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the
transmitter is turned off
   B. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC
circuit
   C. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter
rectified AC
   D. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by
several hops through the ionosphere

4AG-7.7 How can a power amplifier be neutralized?
   A. By increasing the grid drive
   B. By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the
input
   C. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to
the input
   D. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to
the output

4AG-7.8 What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient
to reduce harmonics to an acceptable level?
   A. Approximately 120
   B. Approximately 12
   C. Approximately 1200
   D. Approximately 1.2

4AG-7.9 How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power
amplifier?
   A. By tuning for maximum SWR
   B. By tuning for maximum power output
   C. By neutralization
   D. By tuning the output

4AG-7.10 What is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier
having an output pi-network?
   A. Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and
then dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor
   B. Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning
capacitor and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
   C. Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then
dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
   D. Alternately increase the plate current with the loading
capacitor and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor

4AG-8.1 What is the process of ++++detection++++?
   A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received
carrier to make an S-meter operational
   B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal
   C. The modulation of a carrier
   D. The mixing of noise with the received signal

4AG-8.2 What is the principle of detection in a diode detector?
   A. Rectification and filtering of RF
   B. Breakdown of the Zener voltage
   C. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode
   D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to
frequency

4AG-8.3 What is a ++++product detector++++?
   A. A detector that provides local oscillations for input to
the mixer
   B. A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass
frequencies
   C. A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally
generated carrier
   D. A detector used to detect cross-modulation products

4AG-8.4 How are FM-phone signals detected?
   A. By a balanced modulator
   B. By a frequency discriminator
   C. By a product detector
   D. By a phase splitter

4AG-8.5 What is a ++++frequency discriminator++++?
   A. A circuit for detecting FM signals
   B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
   C. An automatic bandswitching circuit
   D. An FM generator

4AG-8.6 What is the ++++mixing process++++?
   A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
comparison
   B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
differentiation
   C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation
   D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and
difference frequencies

4AG-8.7 What are the principal frequencies which appear at the
output of a mixer circuit?
   A. Two and four times the original frequency
   B. The sum, difference and square root of the input
frequencies
   C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference
frequencies
   D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

4AG-8.8 What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion
process?
   A. Automatic squelching and increased selectivity
   B. Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design
   C. Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching
   D. Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased
selectivity

4AG-8.9 What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of
signal energy reaches the mixer circuit?
   A. Spurious mixer products are generated
   B. Mixer blanking occurs
   C. Automatic limiting occurs
   D. A beat frequency is generated

4AG-9.1 How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of
a receiver?
   A. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation
   B. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise
generated in the first mixer stage
   C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the
first mixer stage
   D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF
stage

4AG-9.2 Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have
sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated
in the first mixer stage?
   A. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being
generated
   B. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
   C. To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products
   D. To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator

4AG-9.3 What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a
receiver?
   A. To provide most of the receiver gain
   B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
   C. To improve the receiver's noise figure
   D. To develop the AGC voltage

4AG-9.4 What is an ++++i-f amplifier stage++++?
   A. A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier
   B. A receiver demodulator
   C. A receiver filter
   D. A buffer oscillator

4AG-9.5 What factors should be considered when selecting an
intermediate frequency?
   A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference
   B. Interference to other services
   C. Image rejection and selectivity
   D. Noise figure and distortion

4AG-9.6 What is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier
stage in a receiver?
   A. Noise figure performance
   B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion
   C. Dynamic response
   D. Selectivity

4AG-9.7 What is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier
stage in a receiver?
   A. Dynamic response
   B. Gain
   C. Noise figure performance
   D. Bypass undesired signals

4AG-10.1 What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10 [see graphics addendum]?
   A. Switching voltage regulator
   B. Linear voltage regulator
   C. Common emitter amplifier
   D. Emitter follower amplifier

4AG-10.2 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2 [see graphics addendum]?
   A. Load resistors
   B. Fixed bias
   C. Self bias
   D. Feedback

See ADV-3.ASC for the remainder of this pool plus it's answers...